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2021/2022 WAEC Geography answers for objective and essay is found here now

2021/2022 WAEC Geography answers for objective and essay is found here now

2021/2022 WAEC Geography Answers for Objective and Essay is Found Here Now – The 2021/2022 WAEC Geography answers are outlined in this post. The West African Examination Council (WAEC) Geography paper will be written according to the scheduled time table. This site will give you the update if there is change in the time table.

The Exam Timing:

As a matter of fact,, WAEC Geography 2022/2022 exam will comprise Papers 2 & 1. That is Essay and Objective, which will commence from 8.30 am and end by 11.30 pm. same day. So, get ready to solve these questions targeting to finish before 3hrs.

This post objectives:

Because people are asking about WAEC Geography questions and answers 2022/2023. They need expo and here they are. They are also asking for JAMB 2022 Geography questions and answers pdf, The solutions are the objectives of this post. This post therefore takes care of those of you who plan to do well in the WAEC exams this year.

However, the best way to read this post is to read it alongside clicking the highlighted topics for referencing. Especially those of you aspiring for oversea admission and scholarships, the under-listed related topics are good for you. So check out these related topics that follow.

2021/2022 WAEC Geography answers for objective and essay is found here now

Furthermore, this post brings to you sample repeatable questions. It’s men to equip you for readiness for this WAEC Geography questions.

  1. By how many times will a map measuring 12cm by 7cm be enlarged to make its area 336cm2?
    A. Twice
    B. Three times
    C. Four times
    D. Five times.
  2. Eluviation is the process by which _
    A. Soluble substances are removed from the upper layers of the soil
    B. soluble substances are deposited in the upper layers of the soil
    C. fine particles are removed from one layer of the soil to another
    D. fine particles are deposited in the upper layers of the soil.
  3. Transhumance is the seasonal migration of livestock __
    A. from the lowlands to the uplands
    B. from the north to the south following the rains
    C. in the semiarid steppes
    D. in search of water and pasture.
  4. Variations in the lengths of day and night over the earth’s surface are due to the _
    A. earth’s inclination to the sun and its revolution
    B. earth’s inclination to the sun and its rotation
    C. length of the earth’s orbit
    D. thickness of the earth’s atmosphere.
  5. The progressive widening of joints and cracks in limestone by solutions, initially leads to the formation of __
    A. grikes and clints
    B. stalactites and stalagmites
    C. caves and caverns
    D. cliffs and dry valleys.
  6. When condensation occurs in a rising air mass, latent heat is _
    A. absorbed by carbon dioxide
    B. lost to the atmosphere
    C. stored in the water molecules
    D. released as sensible heat.
  7. Two cloud types of a great vertical extent that produce much rainfall are _
    A. cumulus and stratus
    B. cumulus and cumulo-nimbus
    C. cumulo-nimbus and nimbostratus
    D. strato-cumulus and nimbostratus.
  8. The cheapest means of transport for long-distance travel is by _
    A. rail
    B. water
    C. air
    D. road.
  9. If the distance between two points on a map with a scale 1:50,000 is 35mm, what is the distance between them on the ground?
    A. 1.50 km
    B. 1.55 km
    C. 1.75 km
    D. 1.85 km.
  10. Villages develop into urban centres when they __
    A. attract more people
    B. produce enough food
    C. establish educational institutions
    D. grow in commerce and industry.
  11. On which of the following pairs of dates is the length of day and night equal on the earth’s surface?
    A. June 21st and September 21st
    B. March 22nd and December 22nd
    C. June 21st and December 22nd
    D. March 21st and September 23rd.
  12. Lakes formed as a result of landslides, screes or avalanches are known as _
    A. man-made lakes
    B. barrier lakes
    C. caldera lakes
    D. rock-hollow lakes.
  13. Which of the following is a major environmental problem in heavily industrialized regions?
    A. Accelerated erosion
    B. Water pollution
    C. Frost damage
    D. acid rain.
  14. The crossing of a boundary between two countries by a migrant is best described as __
    A. emigration
    B. Immigration
    C. Out-migration
    D. international migration.
  15. A process whereby a plant community is replaced by another is known as __
    A. colonization
    B. succession
    C. competition
    D. consolidation.
  16. The duration of sunshine is measured by the __
    A. aneroid barometer
    B. Campbell-Stokes recorder
    C. cup-anemometer
    D. minimum-maximum thermometers.
  17. Quartz, feldspar and mica are three principal minerals that can easily be seen in _
    A. basalt
    B. coal
    C. granite
    D. limestone.
  18. The rock with the least carbon content is __
    A. Coal
    B. Sandstone
    C. marble
    D. lignite.
  19. The process by which organic matter is decomposed and synthesized to form part of the soil is known as __
    A. humification
    B. mineralization
    C. lateralization
    D. nitrification.
  20. Which of the following groups consists of energy resources?
    A. Petroleum, uranium and manganese
    B. Coal, bauxite and uranium
    C. Water, copper and sun
    D. Coal, petroleum and water.
  21. A piece of evidence that confirms that the earth is spherical is _
    A. Standard time
    B. solar system
    C. earth’s orbit
    D. moon’s eclipse.
  22. A tremendous pressure or temperature change may lead to the formation of __
    A. limestone
    B. granite
    C. gneiss
    D. clay.
  23. Which of the following sources of power supply is renewable?
    A. Solar
    B. Coal
    C. Gas
    D. Nuclear.
  24. Hygrometer is used to measure __
    A. rainfall
    B. wind direction
    C. relative humidity
    D. sunshine.
  25. The largest ocean in the world is the _
    A. Atlantic Ocean
    B. Indian Ocean
    C. Arctic Ocean
    D. Pacific Ocean.
  26. Rock minerals are said to be crystalline when the atoms forming them are _
    A. found in sedimentary rocks
    B. found in crystalline rocks
    C. arranged in a definite pattern
    D. arranged vertically.
  27. The difference in time between two longitudes is approximately __
    A. 15 hours
    B. 40 minutes
    C. 4 hours
    D. 4 minutes.
  28. A slope is said to be even when the contours are _
    A. equally spaced
    B. concentric
    C. closely spaced
    D. irregularly spaced.
  29. If a map has a scale of 1: 50,000 and a cocoa plantation is represented on the map by a rectangle 5 cm by 4 cm, what is the area of the plantation?
    A. 5 km2
    B.6km2
    C. 20km2
    D. 25km2.
  30. On which of the following pairs of dates is the length of day and night equal on the earth’s surface?
    A. June 21st and September 21st
    B. March 22nd and December 22nd
    C. June 21st and December 22nd
    D. March 21st and September 23rd.
  31. Lakes formed as a result of landslides, screes or avalanches are known as _
    A. man-made lakes
    B. barrier lakes
    C. caldera lakes
    D. rock-hollow lakes.
  32. Which of the following is a major environmental problem in heavily industrialized regions?
    A. Accelerated erosion
    B. Water pollution
    C. Frost damage
    D. acid rain.
  33. The crossing of a boundary between two countries by a migrant is best described as __
    A. emigration
    B. Immigration
    C. Out-migration
    D. international migration.
  34. A process whereby a plant community is replaced by another is known as __
    A. colonization
    B. succession
    C. competition
    D. consolidation.
  35. The duration of sunshine is measured by the __
    A. aneroid barometer
    B. Campbell-Stokes recorder
    C. cup-anemometer
    D. minimum-maximum thermometers.
  36. Quartz, feldspar and mica are three principal minerals that can easily be seen in _
    A. basalt
    B. coal
    C. granite
    D. limestone.
  37. The rock with the least carbon content is __
    A. Coal
    B. Sandstone
    C. marble
    D. lignite.
  38. The process by which organic matter is decomposed and synthesized to form part of the soil is known as __
    A. humification
    B. mineralization
    C. laterization
    D. nitrification.
  39. Which of the following groups consists of energy resources?
    A. Petroleum, uranium and manganese
    B. Coal, bauxite and uranium
    C. Water, copper and sun
    D. Coal, petroleum and water.
  40. A piece of evidence that confirms that the earth is spherical is _
    A. Standard time
    B. solar system
    C. earth’s orbit
    D. moon’s eclipse.
  41. A tremendous pressure or temperature change may lead to the formation of __
    A. limestone
    B. granite
    C. gneiss
    D. clay.
  42. Which of the following sources of power supply is renewable?
    A. Solar
    B. Coal
    C. Gas
    D. Nuclear.
  43. Hygrometer is used to measure __
    A. rainfall
    B. wind direction
    C. relative humidity
    D. sunshine.
  44. The largest ocean in the world is the _
    A. Atlantic Ocean
    B. Indian Ocean
    C. Arctic Ocean
    D. Pacific Ocean.
  45. Rock minerals are said to be crystalline when the atoms forming them are _
    A. found in sedimentary rocks
    B. found in crystalline rocks
    C. arranged in definite pattern
    D. arranged vertically.
  46. The difference in time between two longitudes is approximately __
    A. 15 hours
    B. 40 minutes
    C. 4 hours
    D. 4 minutes.
  47. A slope is said to be even when the contours are _
    A. equally spaced
    B. concentric
    C. closely spaced
    D. irregularly spaced.
  48. The cheapest means of transport for long distance travel is by _
    A. rail
    B. water
    C. air
    D. road.
  49. If the distance between two points on a map with scale 1: 50,000 is 35mm, what is the distance between them on the ground?
    A. 1.50 km
    B. 1.55 km
    C. 1.75 km
    D. 1.85 km.
  50. If a map has a scale of 1: 50,000 and a cocoa plantation is represented on the map by a rectangle 5 cm by 4 cm, what is the area of the plantation?
    A. 5 km2
    B.6km2
    C. 20km2
    D. 25km2.

2021/2022 WAEC Geography answers for objective and essay is found here now

Waec Geography Answers 2021.

  1. a) Highlight any three main characteristics of each of the following settlement types:
    i) village;
    ii) town.
    b) State any four factors which are responsible for the growth of urban centres.
  2. Write a geographical account of rail transport under the following headings:
    (a) economic importance;
    (b) problems;
    (c) solutions.
    ANS: (b) Problems of rail transportation included:
    – slow speed in developing countries;
    – derailment due to flooding;
    – poor time schedule;
    – poor standard coaches;
    – competition from other modes of transportation e.g. road and air;
    – the high cost of construction affected by steep gradient/terrain;
    – the high cost of spare parts, etc.
    (c) The solutions to those problems included:
    – wider gauges to increase speed;
    – faster engines and coaches;
    – proper planning and timing of movement schedules;
    – improved management techniques;
    – loans from banks;
    – internal manufacturing of spare parts, etc.
  3. (a) Define the following population terms:
    i) census;
    ii) mortality rate;
    (b) family planning. Outline any three problems confronting a country that is overpopulated.
    (c) Highlight any three ways by which the problem of overpopulation can be solved.
  4. (a) State four reasons for the concentration of manufacturing industries in the capital cities of Tropical African Countries.
    (b) Give three reasons for the predominance of consumer-oriented industries in Tropical Africa.
    (c) Describe three contributions of manufacturing industries to the economic development of Tropical African Countries.
  5. Draw an outline map of Nigeria. On the map, mark and name
    (a) Two areas of low population density;
    (b) Two areas of high population density;
    (c) One town in one of the high population density areas shown in a(ii) above.
    (d) Highlight any three problems associated with high population density in Nigeria.
    (e) Explain the ways of solving any two of the problems of population density highlighted in 6(b) above.
  6. (a) Highlight any five factors that have accounted for the world’s rapid population growth.
    (b) Outline any five problems of rapid population growth.
    ANS: (a) The factors that have accounted for the world’s rapid population growth include:
    – polygamy;
    – early marriage;
    – advancement in science and technology;
    – improved medical care;
    – low mortality rate;
    – industrialization
    – poor family planning.
  7. (a) Describe any three causes of air pollution.
    (b) Outline the three major effects of air pollution.
    (c) Suggest two ways of controlling air pollution.
    Ans: The candidates were expected to describe the following causes of air pollution:
    – odour as a result of improper disposal
    – emission of smoke from domestic sources
    – fumes from exhaust of vehicles and aeroplanes
    – industrial waste and fumes
    – dust from the explosion of bombs and other dangerous weapons
    – artificial cloud seeding
    – chloroform carbon (CFC) from the cooling system and sprays
    – noise from loudspeakers and aeroplanes.
  8. (a) Draw an outline map of West Africa. On it locate and name:
    (i) one area of the dense population;
    (ii) one area of the sparse population;
    (iii) an important town in each area;
    (iv) the River Niger.
    (b) Explain four factors that have led to the high population in the area shown on your map.
    (c) Highlight two problems of sparse population density.
  9. Describe the savannah belt of Africa under the following headings:
    (a) location;
    (b) vegetation characteristics;
    (c) uses.
2021/2022 WAEC Geography Answers for Objective and Essay

2021/2022 WAEC Geography answers for objective and essay is found here now

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These are classified questions and answers for various secondary education WAEC JUNE, GCE and NECO JUNE & GCE exams. Out of our research, these are recurrent questions and answers. They are also relevant for NABTEB and JAMB exams. You don’t need to neglect any. In fact, this is a full library of recurrent exams questions for you. Click on as many as you want to read. In fact, you can bookmark them or copy them too. Good luck. Visit our tertiary tag for your JAMB and Post Jamb university admission tests and questions.

SUMMING UP: 2021/2022 WAEC Geography answers for objective and essay is found here now

Congratulations for reading through. This post has actually equipped you for your forth coming Geography exam 2021 objectives . This is how we made it in those days. Objective questions are simple but a comprehensive test of all parts of the subject. You will like them.

Finally if you have further questions, please drops your phone numbers in our comment box below. You can also bookmark this page for further review. Please share to reach your friends.

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